In a pick 4 lottery, one winning number is chosen between 0-9999.
So the probability of picking the correct number is 1/10000. And the probability of not picking the correct number is 9999/10000.
So after 15000 draws, we have the historical data of the past 15000 winning numbers. Analyzing the 15000 numbers, the number 1234 has never been the winning number before.
Am I correct to say the probability of the number 1234 not being drawn after 15,000 draws is $(9999/10000)^{15000} = 22.3\%$ ? So the probability of the number 1234 being drawn out after 15000 is 77.7% ?
So after 30,000 draws, the probability of the number 1234 not being drawn is $(9999/10000)^{30000} = 4.9\%$ ?
I get as the number of draws increase, the probability of the number 1234 not being drawn decreases.
Would that mean as the number of draws increases, the number 1234 should have an even higher probability to come out ?
Your calculations are correct but note that at $30,000$ draws the chance that it has not been drawn is about $4.9\%$ or about $1$ in $20$. As there are $10,000$ numbers, there should be about $490$ numbers that have not been drawn yet. The fact that $1234$ or any other number has not been drawn is very weak evidence that the draws are not random.
Lotteries are supposed to work very hard to make the draw truly uniformly random. If the draw is truly uniformly random, there is no information in the history that is of use. It could be that there is intentional bias because somebody who runs the lottery tips off a friend so the friend can have a higher probability of winning. Deleting one or a few numbers does not improve the friend's chances much and I would imagine they vary the bias to avoid getting caught. There could be an unintentional bias. If there are $10,000$ balls to draw from the one with number $1234$ might be too heavy and settle to the bottom of the pile. You could detect that with history, but you would need a lot more data to make a good case.
Just don't play the lottery and you don't have to worry about it.