Easy to muddle through while reading along, but a recurrent source of frustration for me (Wikipedia reference):
$A_{ij}$ would seem to suggest that we are writing $A_{ij}\;e^i\otimes e^j$. But this makes no sense, since a matrix would "eat" one vector and one covector.
On the other hand $A^{i}{}_{j}$ would make more sense interpreted as an object $A^{i}{}_{j} \;e_i \otimes e^j$ that would take in one vector and one covector. In the case of a vector in Euclidean coordinates:
$$\begin{align} A^{i}{}_{j}v^j &= u^i\\[2ex] \text{or}\\[2ex] \left( A^{i}{}_{j} \;e_i \otimes e^j \right) v^j e_j &= u^i e_i \end{align}$$
Likewise, the matrix product can be expressed as
$$\begin{align} A^{i}{}_{j} B^{j}{}_k &= C^{i}{}_k\\[2ex] \text{or}\\[2ex] A^{i}{}_{j} \;e_i \otimes e^j \, B^{j}{}_k \; \;e_j \otimes e^k &= C^{i}{}_k \;e_i \otimes e^k \end{align}$$
So are $A_{ij}$ and $A^{i}{}_{j}$ at all compatible and equivalent, or is $A_{ij}$ misleading when one considers the basis vectors?
Context:
I am confused by this passage in page 9 of Introduction to Tensor Analysis by H.D. Block:
If
$$ {\bf{\bar e_j}} = a^i{}_j {\bf{ e_i}}$$
is the $j$-th entry in a vector in the new basis, and the transformation matrix is
$$A=\begin{bmatrix} a^1{}_1 & a^1{}_2 & \cdots & a^1{}_n\\ a^2{}_1 & a^2{}_2 & \cdots & a^2{}_n\\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots\\ a^n{}_1 & a^n{}_2 & \cdots & a^n{}_n\\ \end{bmatrix}$$
I can't see the notation in
$$ {\bf{\bar e_*}} = A^\top {\bf{ e_*}}$$

${A^i}_j$ is what you must write if you are using Einstein notation. $A_{ij}$ is only what normal mortals use.