Of 1000 roses, on average 20% are damaged, a seller sells 10 roses with which probability will at most 1 rose be damaged?
So for the approximate solution we use the same damage probability for the 10 roses as for the whole bag of 1000 roses, which would be B(10, 0.2, 0)+B(10,0.2,1)=0.3758
for the exact solution it is given p=0.3746
and I wanted to ask whether someone could tell me how the exact solution could be calculated?