Suppose $\theta$ and $R$ are independent random variables, with $\theta$ being Uniform$(−\pi/2,\pi/2)$ and $R$ having the probability density function given by:
$$f_R(r)=\frac{2r}{(1+r^2)^2} \:\text{for } r>0, \quad f_R(r)=0 \:\text{otherwise}.$$
Determine the joint PDF for $X=R\cos\theta$ and $Y=R\sin\theta$.
It is simple enough to calculate the cumulative distribution functions of $\theta$ and $R$, having
$$F_\theta(x)=\frac{1}{\pi}x+\frac{1}{2} \:\text{ on }\: (-\pi/2,\pi/2),\quad \text{and } \:F_r(x)=\frac{x^2}{x^2+1}\:\text{ on }\:(0,\infty),$$
with my aim being eventually to calculate $F_{XY}(x,y)$ from which, by taking partial derivatives, I would be able to obtain $f_{XY}(x,y).$
However, $F_{XY}(x,y)=\mathbb{P}[X=R\cos\theta\le x,Y=R\sin\theta\le y],$ and no matter how much I try to interpret this expression, I can't seem to find a way to bring it into terms of $F_r$ and $F_\theta$ as would lead (I imagine) to the solution.
Is this the correct way to tackle this sort of problem? If so, any hints?
You only want the probability density function. Thus you do not need to know what the cummulative density function is, just how to differentiate it, w.r.t. $x,y$.
Using $~\arctan:\Bbb R\mapsto (-\pi/2.. \pi/2)$
$$\begin{align}f_{\small X,Y}(x,y)&=\dfrac{\mathrm d^2 F_{\small X,Y}(x,y)}{\mathrm d x~\mathrm dy}\\[1ex]&=\dfrac{\mathrm d^2~F_{\small R,\Theta}(\surd (x^2+y^2),\arctan(x/y))}{\mathrm d x~\mathrm d y}\\[1ex]&=\left\lVert\dfrac{\partial\langle\surd(x^2+y^2),\arctan(x/y) \rangle}{\partial\langle x,y\rangle}\right\rVert \left.\dfrac{\mathrm d^2 F_{_{R,\Theta}(r,\theta)}}{\mathrm d r\,\mathrm d \theta}\right\vert_{r=\surd(x^2+y^2)\\\theta=\arctan(x/y)}\\[1ex]&=\left\lVert\dfrac{\partial\langle\surd(x^2+y^2),\arctan(x/y) \rangle}{\partial\langle x,y\rangle}\right\rVert f_{\small R,\Theta}(\surd(x^2+y^2),\arctan(x/y))\tag{1}\\[1ex]&=\begin{Vmatrix}\dfrac{\partial \surd(x^2+y^2)}{\partial x}& \dfrac{\partial\surd(x^2+y^2)}{\partial y}\\ \dfrac{\partial \arctan(x/y)}{\partial x}&\dfrac{\partial\arctan(x/y)}{\partial y}\end{Vmatrix}\,f_{\small R}(\surd(x^2+y^2))\,f_{\small\Theta}(\arctan(x/y))\\[1ex]&~~\vdots\end{align}$$
(1): This is known as the Jacobian Transformation. When $U=g(X,Y), V=h(X,Y)$ then: $$f_{\small X,Y}(x,y)=\left\lVert\dfrac{\partial \langle g(x,y), h(x,y)\rangle}{\partial\langle x,y\rangle}\right\rVert\,f_{\small U,V}(g(x,y),h(x,y))$$