I'm been working through some examples of questions mentioned in the title and came across this one that I wasn't entirely if I was approaching this correctly.
My initial approach to solving this question was to calculate the probability of drawing such a hand and then multiply this by the total number of hands possible.
To get the probability of such a hand I did this
$$\frac{52}{52} * \frac{48}{51} * \frac{44}{50} * \frac{40}{49} * \frac{12}{48} = 0.05634253701$$
Then to get the total number of possible hands I simply did
$$\binom{52}{5} = 2598960$$
And finally, the possible hands by the probability
$$2598960 * 0.05634253701 = 146432$$
Did I approach this question correctly or is the a simpler way I should be doing a question like this?
Choose the 4 ranks (denominations), which 1 of these ranks appears twice, which 2 suits appear for that rank, and which 1 suit appears for each of the other 3 ranks: $$\binom{13}{4}\binom{4}{1}\binom{4}{2}\binom{4}{1}^3=1,098,240$$
Also known as one pair. An alternative approach is to choose the rank for the pair, the 2 suits for the pair, the other 3 ranks, and the suit for each of the other 3 ranks: $$\binom{13}{1}\binom{4}{2}\binom{12}{3}\binom{4}{1}^3=1,098,240$$