Given a norm $|\cdot|:\Bbb{R}^2 \to \Bbb{R}$ and metric spaces $(X,d_X), (Y,d_Y)$, we define $D((x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)) = |(d_X(x_1,x_2),d_Y(y_1,y_2))|$. Is $D$ always a metric? I know it is when working with the 1-norm, 2-norm and $\infty$-norm.
Currently, I am aware that the norms on $\Bbb{R}^2$ are strongly equivalent, in the sense that for any two norms $|\cdot|,||\cdot||$, there exists positive reals $c_1,c_2$ such that $c_1|v|\le ||v||\le c_2|v|$. However, if $(X,d)$ is a discrete metric space, there exist functions that are strongly equivalent to $d$ but violate the triangle inequality, so I'm not sure how useful norms being equivalent are.
Is there some trick I am missing which can prove that $D$ always satisfices the triangle inequality, or is there a counterexample to my claim?
Edit: I believe I found a counter-example, I would appreciate someone confirming whether it is sound.
Sorry, unless I'm mistaken, if we start with the 2-norm, scale the x-axis by a large factor, and then rotate coordinates by 45 degrees, we get a norm where $|(0,1)|> 2|(1,1)|$. Then, if $d$ is the discrete metric on $X=\{a,b,c\}$, $D$ is not a metric on $X\times X$. Consider $D((a,a),(a,b)) = |(0,1)| \ge 2|(1,1)| = D((a,a),(c,c)) + D((a,b),(c,c))$.
Yes, you are correct and the answer is no.
Such a possible norm is $$ |(x,y)|:= \left\| \begin{pmatrix} x + y \\ 4(x-y) \end{pmatrix}\right\|_2. $$ Then we have $$|(0,1)|=\sqrt{17}> 2\cdot 2 = 2|(1,1)|.$$
The relevant criteria is not only that $|\cdot|$ is a norm on $\Bbb R^2$, but also that it is a norm that is monotone in each component. Then $D$ would be a metric on $X\times Y$.
This criteria is satisfied for all $p$-norms on $\Bbb R^2$.