I just read a proof on ProofWiki that proves Euler's formula, but I can't seem to understand what is done in this following step:
$$\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty\left(\frac{(i\theta)^{2n}}{(2n)!}+\frac{(i\theta)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\right) =\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty{\frac{(i\theta)^n}{n!}}$$
Could anyone help me understand this equality step by step?
Sure. You understand, I assume, that the first term is the $\cos$ function, and the second term is the $\sin$ function. Try plugging in values of $n$, and see what emerges. $$n=0: \frac{(i\theta)^{2\cdot0}}{(2\cdot0)!}=\frac{(i\theta)^{0}}{0!}$$ $$n=0: \frac{(i\theta)^{2\cdot0+1}}{(2\cdot0+1)!}=\frac{(i\theta)^{1}}{1!}$$ $$n=1: \frac{(i\theta)^{2\cdot1}}{(2\cdot1)!}=\frac{(i\theta)^{2}}{2!}$$ $$n=1: \frac{(i\theta)^{2\cdot1+1}}{(2\cdot1+1)!}=\frac{(i\theta)^{3}}{3!}$$
Notice the pattern? $$\frac{(i\theta)^{n}}{n!}$$ The first term ($\cos$) provides the even terms in the second sequence, and the second term ($\sin$) provides the odd terms in the second sequence. Since we are summing over an infinite sequence of integers, the upper bound doesn't have to change.