I came up with this guess about three years ago, but I wrote it down for the first time about two months ago, and I don’t know how it can be proven, nor whether it was previously discovered or not. Whoever can help, please do so, thank you.
It is impossible for the six points to lie on a conic section if the triangle is not isosceles



Defining $\triangle ABC$ by $$A=(0,0) \qquad B=(c,0) \qquad C=(b\cos A, b\sin A) \tag{1}$$ we can express the coordinates of the six points as $$\begin{align} A+(A-B)^\perp \quad B+(A-B)^\perp \\ B+(B-C)^\perp \quad C+(B-C)^\perp \\ C+(C-A)^\perp \quad A+(C-A)^\perp \end{align} \tag{2}$$ where $v^\perp:= (-v_y,v_x)$ is the $90^\circ$ counter-clockwise rotation of vector $v$. Then, we recall that points $P$, $Q$, $R$, $S$, $T$, $U$ are co-conicial if and only if $$\left| \begin{array}{cccccc} P_x^2 & P_y^2 & P_x P_y & P_x & P_y & 1 \\ Q_x^2 & Q_y^2 & Q_x Q_y & Q_x & Q_y & 1 \\ R_x^2 & R_y^2 & R_x R_y & R_x & R_y & 1 \\ S_x^2 & S_y^2 & S_x S_y & S_x & S_y & 1 \\ T_x^2 & T_y^2 & T_x T_y & T_x & T_y & 1 \\ U_x^2 & U_y^2 & U_x U_y & U_x & U_y & 1 \end{array} \right| = 0 \tag{3}$$
A computer algebra system makes light work of expanding and simplifying the determinant condition to $$\left(a^2-b^2\right)\left(b^2-c^2\right)\left(c^2-a^2\right)\left(a^2+b^2+c^2+8bc\sin A\right) = 0 \tag{4}$$ Since the last factor is strictly positive, the condition is satisfied when, and only when, at least two of $a$, $b$, $c$ are equal: the triangle must be isosceles, so your guess was correct!
I don't doubt that this result exists in the literature somewhere, but that wouldn't diminish your insight.
Note: If the squares are attached "the other way", so that each overlaps the triangle itself, then we change the "$+$"s in $(2)$ to "$-$"s, and the counterpart of $(4)$ becomes: $$\left(a^2-b^2\right)\left(b^2-c^2\right)\left(c^2-a^2\right)\left(a^2+b^2+c^2-8bc\sin A\right) = 0 \tag{5}$$ The sign change in that last factor is crucial, as it allows for a continuum of non-isosceles solution triangles.