Let $a_i, b_i >0$ for all $n$ and $0 \le \lambda \le 1$
Is the following result true for all $n$?
$$ \sum^n_{i=0} a^\lambda_i b^{1-\lambda}_i \le \left( \sum^n_{i=0} a_i \right) ^\lambda \left( \sum^n_{i=0} b_i\right) ^{1-\lambda} $$
This is trivial for $n=1$, but I am getting stuck on the inductive step.
Straightforward from Hölder’s inequality in Euclidean spaces:
$$\|a\cdot b\|_1 \leq \|a\|_p \|b\|_q$$ for any $p,q\in (1,\infty) : 1/p+1/q=1 $, and for any $a,b \in \mathbb{R}^n$.
Let $ 1/p = \lambda $ and $1/q = 1 - \lambda $ when $ \lambda \in (0,1)$ since the other case when $\lambda = 0$ or $1$ is trivial. Then let $a= \tilde{a}^\lambda, b= \tilde{b}^{(1-\lambda)}$ and we are done