I know that for $0<\eta<1 , \frac{(e^z-1)}{z} $ is holomorphic on {$z \in \mathbb{C}:|z-2|<1+\eta$ }
So I was wondering whether this makes
$\int_{|z-2|=1}\frac{(e^z-1)^2}{z} dz$ and $\int_{|z|=1}\frac{(e^z-1)^2}{z^n}dz$ = 0 by Cauchy's Theorem and Cauchy's integral formula respectively ?
The first integral is zero because of Cauchy's theorem. For the second one we have
$$f^{(n)}(0)=\frac{n!}{2 \pi i}\int_{|z|=1}\frac{f(z)}{z^{n+1}}$$ where $f(z)=(e^z-1)^2.$ Since $f''(0)=2$ we have that
$$2=\frac{2!}{2 \pi i}\int_{|z|=1}\frac{f(z)}{z^{3}}.$$ That is
$$\int_{|z|=1}\frac{f(z)}{z^{3}}=2\pi i\ne 0.$$