Given $f:\mathbb{R}^m\to \mathbb{R}^n$, $g:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^q$, is the following statement for the directional derivative ($\mathbf{v}\in\mathbb{R}^m$) correct? $$\partial_{\mathbf{v}}(\mathbf{g}\circ\mathbf{f})=\big((D\mathbf{g})\circ \mathbf{f}\big)\partial_{\mathbf{v}}\mathbf{f},$$ where $\partial_{\mathbf{v}}$ denotes the directional derivative and $D\mathbf{g}$ the Jacobian matrix.
2026-03-25 07:40:37.1774424437
Chain rule for direction derivative with multivariate and vector-valued functions
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As long as you interpret the RHS correctly regarding where the point of evaluation goes, then yes, it is correct. If we explicitly mention the point of evaluation, and we are super pedantic about the order of evaluation, then for every $\xi \in \mathbb{R}^m$, we have
where the $\cdot$ means matrix multiplication.
The reason I used the word "interpret" above is because from a purely technical standpoint, when you leave out the variable $\xi$, you need to ensure that both sides of the equation has functions with the same domain and target space. In this example, we have the following domains and target spaces:
So, strictly speaking the RHS of your equation is not defined properly. If you wanted to be super formal and write the equation above in a correct form, without explicitly mentioning the variable $\xi$, then we would have to introduce the following "auxillary" functions:
Here, $\omega$ is a sort of "evaluation map", which evaluates the matrix $A$ on the vector $\eta$ by multiplication. $\iota_1$ and $\iota_2$ are the "canonical injections", which allow us to think of an element as being part of a larger product space. With this, we can the write the precise (but cumbersome) statement:
On the RHS, you can see that both $\iota_1 \circ (Dg) \circ f$ and $\iota_2 \circ \partial_v f$ are functions from $\mathbb{R}^m$ into $M_{q \times n}(\mathbb{R}) \times \mathbb{R}^n$, so their sum is a function of the same kind. Thus, composing this sum with $\omega$ makes sense and the result is a function from $\mathbb{R}^m$ into $\mathbb{R}^q$; this agrees with the LHS.
Final Remarks: