If we have the following function $$f(k) = \frac{1}{k-m} \sum_{j=k+1}^{m+n} \frac{1}{j-m}\ \text{where}\ k\in \{m,.....,m+n-1\}$$ How will the function look if we change the variables $i= j-m$ and $r=k-m$?
I have tried to resolve but still having trouble with the final result.
First, since $j\in \{k+1,...m+n \}$ and $i = j-m$ it results that $$ \sum_{j=k+1}^{m+n} \frac{1}{j-m} = \sum_{i=k+1-m}^{n} \frac{1}{i}\ ?$$
Do we have now that $$f(k) = \frac{1}{k-m} \sum_{i=k+1-m}^{n} \frac{1}{i}\ \ ?$$
Also if next we have $r = k-m$ how will the sum change?
$k\in \{m,.....,m+n-1\} => r\in \{0,.....n-1\}$...
Any help is much appreciated, thanks.
Given that $$f(k) = \frac{1}{k-m} \sum_{j=k+1}^{m+n} \frac{1}{j-m}, $$ where $$ k \in \{m,.....,m+n-1\}, $$ and given that $$ i= j-m $$ and $$ r=k-m, $$ we obtain $$ j = i+m $$ and $$ k = r+m, $$ with $$ r \in \{ 0, \ldots, n-1 \}, $$ and hence $$ f(k) = f(r+m) = \frac{1}{r} \sum_{i = k+1-m}^{n} \frac{1}{i} = \frac{1}{r} \sum_{i=r+1}^n \frac{1}{i}, $$ that is, $$ f(r+m) = \frac{1}{r} \sum_{i=r+1}^n \frac{1}{i}, $$ which implies that $$ f(r) = f \big((r-m)+m\big) = \frac{1}{r-m} \sum_{i=r-m+1}^n \frac{1}{i} = \frac{1}{r-m} \sum_{i = r-m+1}^n \frac{1}{i}. $$