I know that for a series $a_{m,n}\ge 0$ $$\sup_m \inf_n a_{m,n}\neq \inf_n\sup_m a_{m,n}$$
But I can't find a counterexample. Could anyone help me?
Thanks a lot!
I know that for a series $a_{m,n}\ge 0$ $$\sup_m \inf_n a_{m,n}\neq \inf_n\sup_m a_{m,n}$$
But I can't find a counterexample. Could anyone help me?
Thanks a lot!
Thanks to Martin Sleziak's hint:
$a_{m,n}=1_{m>n}+2_{m\le n}$
$$1=\sup_m \inf_n a_{m,n}\neq \inf_n\sup_m a_{m,n}=2$$