I have some difficulties to prove that if two equivalent boolean functions contain only ∧, ∨ and $\neg$ than we can change ∧ to ∨ and vice versa and the result functions will remain equivalent.
There's a hint to solve it with the induction and de Morgan's laws, but I've no idea how to use it.
Thanks in advance!
HINT
First, get some precise definitions going, so you can refer to those in your proof.
So, relative to any expression or function $\phi$ built up from $\neg$, $\lor$, and $\land$, define the expression $\phi^D$ to be the result of changing all $\land$'s into $\lor$'s and vice versa. Formally and recursively:
OK, so what you are asked to prove is that for any $\phi$ and $\psi$ built up from $\neg$, $\lor$, and $\land$: If $\phi \Leftrightarrow \psi$ then $\phi^D \Leftrightarrow \psi^D$
Now, how do you prove this? Here is one strategy:
Relative to any expression or function $\phi$ built up from $\neg$, $\lor$, and $\land$, define the expression $\phi’$ to be the sentence that one obtains by putting a negation in front of every atomic sentence occurring in $\phi$. Formally and recursively:
Use this to prove (using induction) the following Lemma's:
For any $\phi$ built up from $\neg$, $\lor$, and $\land$: $\phi^D \Leftrightarrow \neg \phi'$
For any $\phi$ and $\psi$ built up from $\neg$, $\lor$, and $\land$: If $\phi \Leftrightarrow \psi$ then $\phi' \Leftrightarrow \psi'$
The result you have to prove follows quickly from these two Lemma's.