In the proof of Chebyshev's Inequality we do the following:
Claim: for some random variable $Y$ and some value $a > 0$
$Pr[|Y - E[Y]| \geq a] = \frac{E[(Y - E[Y])^2]}{a^2}$
Let's refer to $E[Y]$ as $\mu$
\begin{align*} Pr[|Y - \mu| \geq a] =&\ Pr[|Y - \mu|^2 \geq a^2] \\ =& \ Pr[X \geq a^2]\ \ \ \ if \ X = (Y - \mu)^2\\ \leq& \ \frac{E[X]}{a^2}\ \ \ \ by \ Markov's \ inequality\\ =& \ \frac{E[(Y - E[Y])^2]}{a^2} \end{align*}
My question is, how can we just assert:
$Pr[|Y - \mu| \geq a] =\ Pr[|Y - \mu|^2 \geq a^2]$
What is the intuition or line of thought behind this?
Claim: $|Y-\mu|\ge a$ holds $\Leftrightarrow$ $|Y-\mu|^2\ge a^2$ holds.
Proof:
In general, if $g$ is a non-decreasing real valued function then applying $g$ to both sides of an inequality preserves the inequality.
"$\Rightarrow$": Let $g(x) = x^2$ for $x\ge0$ and $g(x)=x$ for $x<0.$
"$\Leftarrow$": Let $g(x) = \sqrt x$ for $x\ge0$ and $g(x)=x$ for $x<0.$
This shows that the events are identical, so their probabilities are equal.
Here's another way to think about this:
Imagine the probabilities were not the same. Suppose $P(|Y-\mu|\ge a)>P(|Y-\mu|^2\ge a^2).$ Then with positive probability, $|Y-\mu|\ge a$ holds but $|Y-\mu|^2\ge a^2$ does not hold, which is a contradiction. Similiarly, the second probability can't be greater. Therefore they must be equal.