This is in sorts a follow up to the question Checking separation axioms against topological basis, in which I verified that checking certain separation axioms can be done only with Basis elements. My natural follow-up question is whether we can check these properties against a sub-basis instead, and I thought that it deserves a sperate thread. I think this is true but would appreciate verification for example for the following argument:
Let $(X,\tau)$ be a topological basis and let $\mathcal{S}$ be a sub-basis for $\tau$. Then $(X,\tau)$ is Hausdorff, or $T_2$, if and only if for every distinct $x,y\in X$ there exist $S_1,S_2\in \mathcal{S}$ such that $x\in S_1$, $y\in S_2$ and $S_1\cap S_2=\emptyset$.
Since $\mathcal{S}\subset \tau$, one implication is trivial. For the other direction, denote $\mathcal{B}$ the basis generated by $\mathcal{S}$. By the other question, we know that there exist $B_1,B_2\in \mathcal{B}$ such that
$$ x\in B_1, \quad y\in B_2 \quad \text{and} \quad B_1\cap B_2=\emptyset. $$
We know that the elements in $\mathcal{B}$ are finite intersections of elements in $\mathcal{S}$, and therefore
$$ B_1= \cap_{i=1}^{r_1} S_i^1 \quad \text{and} \quad B_1= \cap_{j=1}^{r_2} S_j^2. $$
Hence $x\in S_i^1$ for all $i\in [r_1]$, $y\in S_j^2$ for all $j\in [r_2]$, there exists $i_0\in [r_1]$ such that $y\notin S_{i_0}^1$ and there exists $j_0\in [r_2]$ such that $x\notin S_{j_0}^2$. So if we choose $S_1:=S_{i_0}^1$ and $S_2:=S_{j_0}^2$, we get our needed separating sets.
Does this argument seem right? It seems to work similarly well for $T_1$ and $T_0$ because we only need to concern ourselves with one open neighbourhood.
You have just found subbasic sets $S_1$ and $S_2$ such that $x ∈ S_1 ∌ y$ and $y ∈ S_2 ∌ x$, but the sets may not be disjoint. In fact, consider a finite discrete space – the co-singleton sets form a subbasis, but every two members intersect (if the space has at least $3$ points).