We know that a Chi-squared distribution is the distribution of the sum of squared independent Gaussian random variables $Z_i \sim N(0, 1)$:
$$ Y = \sum_{i=0}^k Z_i^2 $$.
If we have another random variable $Z^R_I$ which is a rectified Gaussian, $$ Z_i^R = max(0, Z_i) $$,
Would it be logical to say that the distribution of the sum of squared independent rectified Gaussian random variables $Z_i^R$ is equivalent to the sum of to half a chi-squared distribution?
$$ Y^R = \sum_{i=0}^{k} (Z^R_{i})^2 = \sum_{i=0}^{k/2} Z_i^2 $$ $$ Y^R \sim \chi^2_{k/2} $$
Furthermore , if $Var[Y] = 2k$, would $Var[Y^R] = k$ and $E[Y] = k$, would $E[Y^R] = k/2$ ?
Addressing the mean and variance part:
so
meaning that although the means match, the variance is higher than you suggested and $Y^R \not \sim \chi^2_{k/2}$.
This is no surprise: the expectation is that half the $Z_i$ and $Z_i^R$ are positive and so cause that mean, but sometimes few or none are positive and sometimes most or all are positive, and so cause the dispersion to be greater than if always exactly half of them would have been positive.