I have two questions about a few steps in Çinlar's derivations of Examples 2.11 and 2.12.
(Blue highlight) How did he go from $\mathbb{E}f(X+Y, \frac{X}{X+Y})$ to $\int_{0}^{\infty}dx\frac{x^{a-1}e^{-x}}{\Gamma(a)}\int_{0}^{\infty}dy\frac{x^{b-1}e^{-y}}{\Gamma(b)}f(x+y, \frac{x}{x+y})$? I can understand that from Theorem 2.4, we have $\mathbb{E}f\circ X = \mu f$, so the integral will look something like $\int_{0}^{\infty}\mu(dx)\int_{0}^{1}K(x,dy)f(x,y)$, but where did the transitional kernel go in his derivation?
(Green highlight) He said that $\mathbb{P}\{R > r\} = (\frac{c}{c+r})^a$ according to the Laplace transform computation above in 2.11, but I don't really get it... What does this have anything to do with 2.11 (the previous example)? It doesn't seem like the previous example has anything to do with the Laplace transform.
Thanks to everyone in advance for helping out!
Here are the screenshots of the above examples and Theorem 2.4:




$$E[g(X,Y)]=\int_\mathbb{R_+}\int_\mathbb{R_+}g(x,y)f_X(x)f_Y(y)dydx\\ =\int_\mathbb{R_+}f_X(x)\int_\mathbb{R_+}g(x,y)f_Y(y)dydx.$$
Yours is the case where $g(X,Y)=f(X+Y,\frac{X}{X+Y})$ for a positive Borel function $f$ on $\mathbb{R_+}\times [0,1],$ and $f_X,f_Y$ are standard gamma densities.