I am wondering if any knows how to compute a closed form for the following two series.
- $$\sum_{m=1}^{n}\frac{(-1)^m}{m^2}\binom{2n}{n+m}$$
- $$\sum_{m=1}^{n}\frac{(-1)^m}{m^4}\binom{2n}{n+m}$$
Mathematica gave a result in terms of the Hypergeometric function, which I don't understand. I was wondering if anyone can illustrate how to express these two series in a nice closed form, without using the Hypergeomeyric function. I was thinking along the line using a combinatorial identity or method, but I having problems figuring it out.
Let $$ g(n,m)=\frac1{\binom{2n}{n}}\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{(-1)^j}{j^m}\binom{2n}{n+j}\tag{1} $$ then it can be shown that $$ g(n,m)=g(n-1,m)+\frac{g(n,m-2)}{n^2}\tag{2} $$ The proof of $(2)$ is below.
Since $$ \sum_{j=0}^k(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}=(-1)^k\binom{n-1}{k}\tag{3} $$ we get $$ g(n,0)=-\frac12\tag{4} $$ then, using $(2)$ and $(4)$, we get $$ g(n,2)=-\frac12H_n^{(2)}\tag{5} $$ Therefore, $$ \bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{(-1)^j}{j^2}\binom{2n}{n+j}=-\frac12H_n^{(2)}\binom{2n}{n}}\tag{6} $$ where $$ H_n^{(k)}=\sum_{j=1}^n\frac1{j^k}\tag{7} $$
Using $(2)$ and $(5)$, we get that $$ g(n,4)=-\frac14\left(\left(H_n^{(2)}\right)^2+H_n^{(4)}\right)\tag{8} $$ therefore, $$ \bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{(-1)^j}{j^4}\binom{2n}{n+j}=-\frac14\left(\left(H_n^{(2)}\right)^2+H_n^{(4)}\right)\binom{2n}{n}}\tag{9} $$
Proof of $\boldsymbol{(2)}$:
Note that $$ \begin{align} g(n,m) &=\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{(-1)^j}{j^m}\frac{n!}{(n-j)!}\frac{n!}{(n+j)!}\\ &=\frac{(-1)^n}{n^m\binom{2n}{n}}+\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\frac{(-1)^j}{j^m}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n-j-1)!}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n+j-1)!}\frac{n^2}{n^2-j^2}\\ g(n-1,m) &=\hphantom{\frac{(-1)^n}{n^m\binom{2n}{n}}+}\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\frac{(-1)^j}{j^m}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n-j-1)!}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n+j-1)!}\\ g(n,m)-g(n-1,m) &=\frac{(-1)^n}{n^m\binom{2n}{n}}+\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\frac{(-1)^j}{j^m}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n-j-1)!}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n+j-1)!}\frac{j^2}{n^2-j^2}\\ &=\frac{(-1)^n}{n^m\binom{2n}{n}}+\frac1{n^2}\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\frac{(-1)^j}{j^{m-2}}\frac{n!}{(n-j)!}\frac{n!}{(n+j)!}\\ &=\frac1{n^2}\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{(-1)^j}{j^{m-2}}\frac{n!}{(n-j)!}\frac{n!}{(n+j)!}\\ &=\frac{g(n,m-2)}{n^2} \end{align} $$