What do you think about the closed form I found for this series?
$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!} = \frac{e+1}{2(e-1)}$$
I found it this way:
Take the Ramanujan's summation $C(0)$ for divergent series:
$$C(0) = -\frac{1}{2}f(0) - \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{ B_{2k}}{(2k)!}f^{(2k-1)}(0)$$
Let $f(x)=e^x$ so that $f^{(2k-1)}(0)=f(0)=1$.
Now we have:
$$C(0) = -\frac{1}{2} - \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}$$
Lets now assign some value to $C(0)$, by manipulating $\sum_{k=1}^\infty e^k$ one arrives to:
$$S = \sum_{k=1}^\infty e^k = e^1+e^2+e^3+...$$ $$\frac{1}{e}S=1+S$$ $$S=\frac{e}{1-e}$$
Now we have:
$$\frac{e}{1-e} = -\frac{1}{2} - \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}$$ $$\frac{e}{1-e} + \frac{1}{2} = - \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}$$ $$\frac{e+1}{2(1-e)} = -\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}$$ $$\frac{e+1}{2(e-1)} = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}$$
It seems that the identity follows immediately from the definition of Bernoulli number. It si known that for $|x|<2\pi$, $$\frac{x}{e^x-1}+\frac{x}{2}-1 = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}x^{2k}}{(2k)!}$$ so by taking $x=1$ we get the result (different from OP's) $$\frac{3-e}{2(e-1)}=\frac{1}{e-1}+\frac{1}{2}-1 = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}.$$ Am I missing something?
P.S.By the way the $$\frac{e+1}{2\left(e-1\right)}=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{B_{2k}x^{2k}}{(2k)!}.$$