I need to calculate the sum $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n(e^{2 n \pi}-1)}$$
Write $$S=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n(e^{2 n \pi}-1)}$$ $$S=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n} \sum_{m=1}^\infty e^{-2 \pi n m}$$ Now changing the order of summation $$S=\sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{e^{-2 \pi n m}}{n}$$$$S=-\sum_{m=1}^\infty \log(1-e^{-2\pi m})$$ So $$S=\log\left(\prod_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{1-e^{-2\pi n}}\right)$$ Any help would be appreciated. Thank you.
Your last expression is in fact $\;\displaystyle S=-\log \phi\left(e^{-2\pi}\right)\,$ with $\phi$ the Euler function $\;\displaystyle \phi(q):=\prod_{n=1}^\infty 1-q^n$.
Fortunately Ramanujan found that $\;\displaystyle \phi\left(e^{-2\pi}\right)=\frac {e^{\,\pi/12}\,\Gamma\left(\frac 14\right)}{2\pi^{3/4}}\,$
(proof by Bruce Berndt in page $326$ of Ramanujan's Notebooks Part V )
allowing us some simplification of Paramanand Singh's powerful general answer :
$$\boxed{S=\log(2)+\frac 34\log(\pi)-\frac {\pi}{12}-\log\left(\Gamma\left(\frac 14\right)\right)}$$