I apologize if this is a duplicate. I don't know enough about group cohomology to know if this is just a special case of an earlier post with the same title.
Let $G=\langle\sigma\rangle$ where $\sigma^m=1$. Let $N=1+\sigma+\sigma^2+\cdots+\sigma^{m-1}$. Then it is claimed in Dummit and Foote that $$\cdots\mathbb{Z} G \xrightarrow{\;\sigma -1\;} \mathbb{Z} G \xrightarrow{\;N\;} \mathbb{Z} G \xrightarrow{\;\sigma -1\;} \cdots \xrightarrow{\;N\;} \mathbb{Z} G \xrightarrow{\;\sigma -1\;} \mathbb{Z} G \xrightarrow{\;\text{aug}\;} \mathbb{Z} \longrightarrow 0$$ is a free resolution of the trivial $G$-module $\mathbb{Z}$. Here $\mathbb{Z} G$ is the group ring and $\text{aug}$ is the augmentation map which sums coefficients. It's clear that $N( \sigma -1) = 0$ so that the composition of consecutive maps is zero. But I can't see why the kernel of a map should be contained in the image of the previous map. any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time.
As $(\sigma-1)(c_0+c_1\sigma+\dots c_{n-1}\sigma^{n-1})=(c_n-c_0)+(c_0-c_1)\sigma+\dots (c_{n-2}-c_{n-1})\sigma^{n-1}$, the element $a=c_0+c_1\sigma+\dots c_{n-1}\sigma^{n-1}$ is in the kernel of $\sigma-1$ iff all $c_i$'s are equal, i.e. iff $a=Nc$ for some $c\in\mathbb{Z}$. Similarly, $Na=(\sum c_i)N$, so here the kernel is given by the condition $\sum c_i=0$, but this means $a=(\sigma-1)(-c_0-(c_0+c_1)\sigma-(c_0+c_1+c_2)\sigma^2-\cdots)$.