I found that $$ \sum_{j=0}^{s}(n-s+j)!\binom{s}{j}(s-j)! =s! \sum_{j=0}^{s} \frac{(n-s+j)!}{j!} = \frac{(n+1)!}{n+1-s}$$ I proved this formula with induction, but I was wondering if there is a (combinatorial?) interpretation that can explain it.
Moreover, I wanted to simplify in a similar way also the following:
$$ \sum_{j=0}^{s}(n-s+j)!\binom{s}{j}3^{s-j}(s-j)! = s! 3^s \sum_{j=0}^{s} \frac{(n-s+j)!}{j!3^j} = ?$$ is it possible?
I use the notation $x^{\underline k}=x(x-1)\ldots(x-k+1)$ for the falling factorial. First note that
$$\sum_{j=0}^s(n-s+j)!\binom{s}j(s-j)!=\sum_{j=0}^s(n-s+j)!s^{\underline{s-j}}=\sum_{j=0}^ss^{\underline j}(n-j)!\;.\tag{1}$$
Let $A=\{0,1,\ldots,n\}$; then $s^{\underline j}(n-j)!$ is the number of permutations $a_0a_1\ldots a_n$ of $A$ such that $a_j=s$, and $a_i<s$ for $0\le i<j$. Summing over $j$ to get $(1)$ yields the number of permutations of $A$ in which every element preceding $s$ is smaller than $s$.
Now let $\pi=a_0a_1\ldots a_n$ be an arbitrary permutation of $A$. Let $j$ be minimal such that $a_j\ge s$, let $a_k=s$, and let $\pi'$ be the permutation that results from interchanging $a_j$ and $a_k$. Then $\pi'$ is one of the permutations counted by $(1)$, and the map $\pi\mapsto\pi'$ is $(n+1-s)$-to-$1$, so
$$\sum_{j=0}^s(n-s+j)!\binom{s}j(s-j)!=\sum_{j=0}^ss^{\underline j}(n-j)!=\frac{(n+1)!}{n+1-s}\;.$$
Similarly, we can rewrite
$$\sum_{j=0}^{s}(n-s+j)!\binom{s}{j}3^{s-j}(s-j)! = \sum_{j=0}^s3^js^{\underline j}(n-j)!\;.\tag{2}$$
If we think of the set $A$ above as a set of $n+1$ numbered white balls, $(2)$ is the number of ways of choosing a permutation of the type counted in $(1)$ and then painting each of the balls preceding ball $s$ independently with one of the three colors red, blue, and green. Unfortunately, I don’t see any nice way to count the outcomes in one go to simplify $(2)$.