In a ring $R$ with unity, every element can be written as product of finitely many idempotents. Can one show that the ring is commutative?
2026-03-27 01:45:12.1774575912
Commutativity of a ring from idempotents.
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If $e$ is the leftmost idempotent in a factorization of a unit $u$, then $(1-e)u=0$ implies $1-e=0$ and $e=1$. After finitely many steps we have proven $u=1$.
If $x$ is nilpotent, then $1-x$ is a unit, and that must be $1$ by the first lemma. Thus $x=0$.
For any $r\in R$, both $er-ere$ and $re-ere$ square to zero, so they are both zero, and $er=ere=re$.
everything is a product of idempotents, all of which commute with each other, so the ring is commutative. Moreover, every product of commuting idempotents is idempotent, so we can even conclude the ring is a Boolean ring.