Here on the page $10$ in the $5$th line (the proof of lemma $1.10$), Shelah defines $n_*$ as $\omega$: $$n_*=\omega,$$ and then he continues: be such that $n_*\geq\text{max}\{n(0),...,n(m-1)\}<\omega.$
Does it make sense?
Here on the page $10$ in the $5$th line (the proof of lemma $1.10$), Shelah defines $n_*$ as $\omega$: $$n_*=\omega,$$ and then he continues: be such that $n_*\geq\text{max}\{n(0),...,n(m-1)\}<\omega.$
Does it make sense?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
The paper you are quoting does not say
it says
and certainly if the middle $<\omega$, it is going to be less than $n_\ast=\omega$.
I can't speak for the rest of the paper, but I don't see anything particularly odd about the line.