Problem
This question arises from a paper I am reading now. The original reasoning could be translated into following
$$ \Pr[X>\alpha+\beta+t] \leq f(t) \Rightarrow \mathbb{E}[X] \leq \alpha+\beta + \int_{t}f(t)dt $$ where $x$ is a random variable and $\alpha, \beta$ are constants.
It seems that the author tries to do integration on both sides and somehow remove the probability sign and replace it with expectation. But to my understanding, I need pdf of $X$ to compute its expectation and $\Pr[X>\alpha+\beta+t] \leq f(t)$ is not enough.
So could someone help me with the reasoning the author uses here?
Indeed, you can derive this using the formula given by drhab above: If $X$ is nonnegative, you have \begin{eqnarray}\mathbb{E}[X]&=&\int_0^\infty\mathbb{P}(X>t)~\mathrm{d}t\\&=&\int_{-\alpha-\beta}^\infty\mathbb{P}(X>\alpha+\beta+t)~\mathrm{d}t\\&\leq& \int_{-\alpha-\beta}^0 1~\mathrm{d}t+\int_{0}^\infty\mathbb{P}(X>\alpha+\beta+t)~\mathrm{d}t \\&\leq& \alpha+\beta+\int_{0}^\infty f(t)~\mathrm{d}t. \end{eqnarray}
Edit: Based on the other contributors' comments, I add a solution without the nonnegativity assumption: Let $Y:=X-\alpha-\beta$. Then $$\mathbb{E}[Y]\leq \mathbb{E}[Y^+]=\int_0^\infty\mathbb{P}(Y^+>t)~\mathrm{d}t= \int_0^\infty\mathbb{P}(Y>t)~\mathrm{d}t\leq \int_0^\infty f(t)~\mathrm{d}t.$$ Plugging in the definition of $Y$ immediately tells us $$\mathbb{E}[X]\leq\alpha+\beta+\int_0^\infty f(t)~\mathrm{d}t.$$