In the Scottish Book, there is a question posed by Stanislaw Hartman, which goes as follows:
It is easy to see that $\liminf |\cos^n n| = \liminf |\sin^n n| = 0$. A bit harder is to prove $\limsup|\cos n|^n = 1$ and $\limsup|\sin n|^n = 1$. Find $\liminf(\cos n)^n$, $\liminf(\sin n)^n$, and $\limsup(\sin n)^n$.
For the time being, I can see easily why the first two equalities hold. But how does one prove $\limsup|\cos n|^n = 1$ and $\limsup|\sin n|^n = 1$?
My attempt for $\sin$: Try to find $|\sin n|$ arbitrarily close to $1$. Let $d$ sufficiently small be given and suppose we want to find $n$ so that $|\sin n| > 1-d$. Since $\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \cos x \geq 1-\frac{x^2}{2}$, we proceed with finding $$n\in \left(\frac{\pi}{2} - \sqrt{2d}, \frac{\pi}{2} + \sqrt{2d}\right) \mod 2\pi.$$ This reduces to finding $n,k\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $$\left|n - k(2\pi) - \frac{\pi}{2}\right| \leq \sqrt{2d}.$$ It looks like a Dirichlet approximation theorem at this point, but what I need is a bound on $n$ in terms of $d$. I tried using the Pigeonhole Principle (which would elucidate a bound like the below), but I got stuck.
The idea is (naively, I think it's possible) to obtain a bound that looks something like \begin{align*} |n| \leq \frac{M}{\sqrt{d}}, \end{align*} from which the proof is easy to complete.
Any ideas on how to bridge this gap to obtain such a bound? Thanks in advance!
Edits: Typographical errors.
We can select infintely many coprime $p_n, q_n$, with $q_n$ odd (any two consecutive convergents must have one with odd denominator), such that $$\left| {\frac{\pi }{2} - \frac{{{p_n}}}{{{q_n}}}} \right| < \frac{1}{{{q_n}^2}}$$ Hence $$\left| {\sin {p_n}} \right| = \left| {\cos \left( {\frac{\pi }{2}{q_n} - {p_n}} \right)} \right| > \cos (\frac{1}{{{q_n}}})$$ $${\left| {\sin {p_n}} \right|^{{p_n}}} > {\left[ {\cos (\frac{1}{{{q_n}}})} \right]^{{p_n}}}$$ we show the RHS tends to $1$ as $n\to \infty$, this will conclude the proof. Taking logarithm, and use expansion of $\ln(\cos x)$ at $x=0$, gives $${p_n}\ln (\cos (\frac{1}{{{q_n}}})) = {p_n}\left[ { - \frac{1}{{2{q_n}^2}} + O(\frac{1}{{{q_n}^3}})} \right] \to 0$$ Hence the original limit is $1$, as claimed.
Some numerical results: $$(\sin 344)^{344} = 0.99668228987427186783 \\ (\sin 51819)^{51819} = 0.99998427372794265915 $$ They come from nominators of convergents of $\pi/2$. Similarly, you can show $$\limsup_{n\to \infty} |\cos n|^n = 1$$