Confusion about the definition of positive definiteness

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First let me check my definition is correct:

  • Let $A\in M_n(\Bbb C)$. If $(\forall x\in\Bbb C^n\setminus\{0\},~x^*Ax>0)$, then we called $A$ positive definite.
  • Let $A\in M_n(\Bbb R)$. If $(\forall x\in\Bbb R^n\setminus\{0\},~x^TAx>0)$, then we called $A$ positive definite.

First question: is my definition stated above "correct" (namely, standard)?

Second, now, if $A=\begin{bmatrix}2&3\\ 1&4\end{bmatrix}$. By the second meaning/definition of positive definite, it really is positive definite. However, how about in view of the first definition? $A$ is not Hermitian, hence it is impossible that $(\forall x\in\Bbb C^n\setminus\{0\},~x^*Ax>0)$. Then shouldn't $A$ be non positive definite?

Third, if $A\in M_n(\Bbb R)$ is real, symmetric. Then does "$\forall x\in\Bbb R^n\setminus\{0\},~x^TAx>0$" necessarily implies "$\forall x\in\Bbb C^n\setminus\{0\},~x^*Ax>0$"?

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A positive definite matrix is a Hermitian matrix which satisfies the condition that you described (the first one). Therefore, your matrix $A$ is not definite positive. However, note that where you wrote $x\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$, you should have written $x\in\mathbb{C}^n\setminus\{0\}$.