I've been struggling to prove the following lemma: "Let $\Omega\subset\mathbb{R}^{d}$ be open and bounded with a Lipschitz boundary and such that $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\partial\Omega$ has exactly two connected compnents. Then $\partial\Omega$ is connected."
It seems an evident result when you think about it for 5 minutes, but I am struggling with a formal proof (a reference would be really welcome). It also looks like the typical result that you find in some old calculus book, but I haven't been able to find one yet. I have thought a complex analysis approach, but this would only solve the 2-dimensional case, which we know is not equivalent to prove the d-dimensional case and cannot be generalized. So far I have clarified some things to understand the result better: 
In all of these cases, the domain $\Omega$ has some different dimensional holes $\Gamma_0$: a $d$-dimsnsional hole in the first picture (however this contradicts the hypothesis of "$\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\partial\Omega$ has exactly two connected compnents"), a $d-1$-dimensional slit in the second picture (this contradicts the Lipschitz boundary hypothesis), and a set with positive $d-1$-dimensional Hausdorff measure in the last picture (this also contradicts the Lipschitz boundary hypothesis). It is easy to see these contradictions (with handwaving, sadly), but I cannot seem to prove rigorously the whole lemma (are there any more cases to consider? how do I handle the Lipschitz hypothesis to reach the contradiction in the two latter cases? am I missing something? can it even be trivial?).
So far, my best attempt to the proof is the following:
"There are two possibilities: either $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\Omega$ is connected or $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\Omega$ has at least two disjoint connected components (we will handle the case of $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\Omega$ having exactly two connected components since the cases with more than two connected components are analogous). When $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\Omega$ is connected the result comes straightforward from [Czarnecki-Kulczycki-Lubawski, 2011]. On the other hand, say that $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\Omega=\Gamma_{0}\cup\Gamma_{1}$, where $\Gamma_{0}$ is a connected component which is bounded and $\Gamma_{1}$ is a connected component which is unbounded (the fact that one is bounded and the other is unbounded comes from the fact that $\Omega$ is bounded). Recalling that the $d$-dimensional Hausdorff measure and the $d$-dimensional Lebesgue measure coincide in $\mathbb{R}^{d}$, there are two other possibilities: either $\mathcal{L}^{d}(\Gamma_{0})>0$ or $\mathcal{L}^{d}(\Gamma_{0})=0$. In the first case we have that $\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus\partial\Omega=int(\Gamma_{0})\cup\Omega\cup\Gamma_{1}$ which are, at least, three disjoint connected components and therefore lead to a contradiction. In the latter case, recalling the set $C=\{x+yn:x\in B_{r}(p)\cap H,-h<y<h\}$ from the definition of a Lipschitz domain, for any $p\in\partial\Gamma_{0}$, when $\mathcal{L}^{d}(\Gamma_{0})=0$ we have that $\partial\Gamma_{0}=\Gamma_{0}$ and hence, that $\Gamma_{0}\cap C=(\partial\Gamma_{0})\cap C$ which is a contradiction with $\Gamma_{0}$ being a Lipschitz domain. Therefore $\Gamma_{0}=\emptyset$ and the result comes straightforward from [Czarnecki-Kulczycki-Lubawski, 2011]."
This looks wrong to me, but I can't say where exactly. Any help will be welcome, thank you.
You do not need to refer to measure. I think you missed p.5 below.
Applying result from the paper:
UPD 1.
Expansion of p.4.
Introducing notations for Lipschitz domains is rather tedious, refer to, for example, Understanding Lipschitz domain or D.Mitrea "Distributions, partial differential equations and ... "
One needs the following topological property:
This property implies $\phi(U\cap C) = V\cap H^-.$ 0 is in closure $\overline{H^-}$ of lower half space $H^-,$ so $x\in \overline{C}.$