This question has me stumped. I'm fairly certain that the answer to part a.) is pretty simple: $P(X>n+m|X>n)=\frac{P(X>n+m)}{P(X>n)}$, because $X>n+m$ is a subset of $X>n$, which is $\frac{a^{n+m}}{a^n}=a^m$. But part b.) is where I run out of steam. What avenue should I be taking? It's the inequality that's confusing me. I can't see how to obtain $P(X=x)$ from $P(X>n)$ and $P(X>n+m)$.
2026-03-30 10:34:56.1774866896
Consider a random variable X, find its PMF
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Hint for c):
If $X$ is a random variable that only takes values in $\mathbb N\cup\{0\}$ then:
$$\mathsf EX=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\mathsf P(X>n)$$
This on base of:$$p_1+2p_2+3p_3+\cdots=(p_1+p_2+p_3+\dots)+(p_2+p_3+\cdots)+(p_3+\cdots)+\cdots$$