Let $\left\{X_n\right\}_{n \geq 1}$ be such (arbitrary) random variables that $\mathbb{E}\left(X_n\right)=$ $0, n \geq 1$. Define $S_n=\sum_{k=1}^n X_k$ and assume that. $$ \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \mathbb{P}\left(\frac{S_n}{\sqrt{n}} \leq x\right)=\Phi(x), \quad x \in \mathbb{R} . $$ Show that $S_n/a_n \rightarrow 0$ in probability for any sequence $\left\{a_n\right\}_{n \geq 1}$, with the property that $a_n/\sqrt{n} \rightarrow \infty$.
Here are some of my thoughts:
We need to show that $\tfrac{S_n}{a_n} \rightarrow 0$ converges in probability, which means that. $$ \forall \varepsilon>0, \quad P\left(\left|\tfrac{S_n}{a_n}\right|\geq\varepsilon\right) \stackrel{n \rightarrow \infty}{\longrightarrow} 0. $$ We know that $$ \frac{a_n}{\sqrt{n}} \rightarrow \infty, $$ that is, the sequence $\left\{a_n\right\}_{n \geq 1}$ grows faster than $\sqrt{n}.$ \item We also know from the script that for the random variables in this task. $$ \frac{S_n}{n}\stackrel{P}{\longrightarrow} \mathbb{E}[X_1]=0. $$ According to Cebysev $$ P\left(\left|\tfrac{S_n}{a_n}\right|\geq\varepsilon\right) \leq \frac{\operatorname{Var}(\tfrac{S_n}{a_n})}{\varepsilon^2} . $$ Is the variance here simply $0$?
Any hints would be appreciated.
You don't need Chebyshev's inequality (and the condition $E(X_n) = 0$) to get the result, simply use the definition of convergence in probability. Our goal is to show that for any given $\varepsilon > 0$, $P[|S_n| > |a_n|\varepsilon] \to 0$ as $n \to \infty$.
For arbitrary $\delta > 0$, choose $M$ sufficiently large so that $\Phi(M\varepsilon) > 1 - \delta/2$. Since $\lim_{n \to \infty}|a_n|/\sqrt{n} = +\infty$, there exists a positive integer $N$ such that for all $n > N$, $|a_n|/\sqrt{n} > M$. Therefore, for every $n > N$: \begin{align} & P(|S_n/a_n| > \varepsilon) = P(|S_n/\sqrt{n}| > |a_n|\varepsilon/\sqrt{n}) \leq P[|S_n/\sqrt{n}| > M\varepsilon] \\ =& P[S_n/\sqrt{n} > M\varepsilon] + P[S_n/\sqrt{n} < -M\varepsilon] \\ \to & 1- \Phi(M\varepsilon) + \Phi(-M\varepsilon) = 2(1 - \Phi(M\varepsilon)) < \delta. \end{align} Since $\delta$ is arbitrarily small, the result follows.
In fact, you can directly apply the Slutsky's theorem to this exercise: \begin{align} \frac{S_n}{a_n} = \frac{S_n}{\sqrt{n}}\times\frac{\sqrt{n}}{a_n} \to_d 0 \end{align} as $S_n/\sqrt{n} \to_d \Phi$ and $\sqrt{n}/a_n \to 0$.