Can anyone prove the following problem?
Let $\lambda_{n} = \dfrac{1}{n}$ for $n = 1,2, \ldots . $ Also, let $ X_{n} \sim \text{Poisson}(\lambda_{n}) $. Prove that if $ Y_{n} = n X_{n} $, then
$$ Y_{n} \xrightarrow{\text{P}} 0.$$
Regards,
Can anyone prove the following problem?
Let $\lambda_{n} = \dfrac{1}{n}$ for $n = 1,2, \ldots . $ Also, let $ X_{n} \sim \text{Poisson}(\lambda_{n}) $. Prove that if $ Y_{n} = n X_{n} $, then
$$ Y_{n} \xrightarrow{\text{P}} 0.$$
Regards,
$P(Y_n > \epsilon) = P(n X_n > \epsilon) = P(X_n > \epsilon /n )$
Then for any $\epsilon$ and $n$ large enough this the latter is equal to $P(X_n > 0 = 1 - P(X_n = 0)$, while the latter is equal to $e^{-\frac{1}{n}} \rightarrow 1$
so we have $P(\mid Y_n \mid > \epsilon) \rightarrow 0$
$Y_n$ can't take negative values, so showing convergence of positive part to zero suffices.