I am considering the power series $$\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^k}{k}$$ and its convergence. I checked easily by Ratio test that it converges absolutely for $|x| < 1$ and I check the endpoints $-1,1$. In the first case I got $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{k}$ which converges, but not absolutely. For the other case, we have the divergent harmonic series. So actually my series converges on $[-1,1)$.
For uniform convergence is it true that it converges uniformly in $[-s,s]$ for $s \in [0,1)$ but not on $(-1,1)$ because at $-1,1$ we did not have absolute convergence?
At $1$ it diverges and therefore it could not possibly converg uniformly on any set to which $1$ belongs.
And there is no connection between uniform convergence and absolute convergense. It converges uniformly on $[-s,s]$ by the Weierstrass $M$-test. In fact, it converges uniformly on any set of the form $[-1,s]$, with $0<s<1$, by Dirichlet's test.