This is a question on the convergence of a sequence of real, convex, analytic functions (it does not get better than that!):
Let $(f_n)_{n\in \mathbb N}$ be a sequence of convex analytic functions on $\mathbb R$.
Suppose that $f_n(x) \to f(x)$ as $n \to \infty$ for all $x \in \mathbb R$ (or in $\mathbb R^+$).
Is $f(x)$ analytic?
Counterexample: Define $f_n(x) = (x^2+1/n)^{1/2}.$ Then each $f_n$ is analytic and convex on $\mathbb R.$ Clearly $f_n(x)\to |x|$ pointwise everywhere. (A little more work shows $f_n(x)\to |x|$ uniformly on $\mathbb R.$)