Consider $\displaystyle f(z)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty a_k z^k$ and suppose that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty f^{(n)}(0)$ converges.
Prove that $\forall z \in \mathbb C, \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty f^{(n)}(z)$ converges.
I'm pretty stumped on this one.
The convergence $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty f^{(n)}(0)$ indicates that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty n! a_n$ converges.
What then ?
Any hint is appreciated.
Put $R_n=\sum_{k\geq n} k! a_k$. We have $R_n\to 0$ as $n$ goes to infinity.
Let $N>0$. We have for $n\geq 0$
$$f^{(n)}(z)=\sum_{k\geq n} k! a_k \frac{z^{k-n}}{(k-n)!}=\sum_{l\geq 0} (n+l)! a_{n+l}\frac{z^l}{l!}$$ and hence $$\sum_{n=0}^N f^{(n)}(z)=\sum_{n=0}^N (\sum_{l\geq 0} (n+l)! a_{n+l})\frac{z^l}{l!}$$
We have a finite number of series, so one can exchange the summations:
$$\sum_{n=0}^N f^{(n)}(z)=\sum_{l\geq 0}(\sum_{n=0}^N (n+l)! a_{n+l} ) \frac{z^l}{l!}=\sum_{l\geq 0} (R_l-R_{l+N+1})\frac{z^l}{l!}$$
Hence, if $g(z)=\sum_{l\geq 0}R_l\frac{z^l}{l!}$, we have:
$$\sum_{n=0}^N f^{(n)}(z)-g(z)=-\sum_{l\geq 0}R_{N+l+1}\frac{z^l}{l!}$$
Fix $\varepsilon>0$. As $R_m$ goes to zero as $m\to \infty$, we can find $M$ such that for all $n\geq M$, we have $|R_n|<\varepsilon$. This gives if $N\geq M$:
$$|-\sum_{l\geq 0}R_{N+l+1}\frac{z^l}{l!}|\leq \sum_{l\geq 0}\varepsilon\frac{|z|^l}{l!} =\varepsilon \exp(|z|)$$ and this finish the proof.