I came across the following question :
Find the convergence radius for the series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty n!x^{n!}$.
My initial intuition led me to believe it should converge for $x\in(-1,1)$.
I would really appreciate if anyone could review my proof and point out if I`m missing anything.
The proof goes as following :
Let $a_n$ be the sequence of coefficients of $x^n$. For every $n_m=k!$ for some $k\in \mathbb{N}$, $a_{n_m}=n_m$.
By Cauchy-Hadamard theorem, $\limsup (|a_n|^\frac 1 n)=\frac 1R$, and by D'Alembert criterion, if the limit $\frac {a_{n_m+1}} {a_{n_m}}$ exists , it equals to $\lim (|a_{n_m}|^\frac 1 {n_m})$ , and indeed $\lim \frac {a_{n_m+1}} {a_{n_m}}=\frac {{n_m+1}} {{n_m}}=1$. Therefore we have $1$ as a partial limit of $|a_n|^{\frac 1 n}$. In addition, for every $n\neq n_m$, $a_n = 0$, meaning $1$ is the limit supremum. (The partial limits are either 1 or 0)
From here we can deduce R=1.
Divergence for $x=1$ is obvious, since $n!$ doesn't converge to $0$, and divergence for $x=-1$ for the same reason (since $n!$ are all even after $n=2$, we get the same series as $x=1$)
Is my proof correct?
Note that $$\sum_{n=1}^M n!x^{n!}\le \sum_{n=1}^{M!} n|x|^{n}$$
So what can we say about the limit case?