I'm asked to compute the probability function of $X + Y$ given that $P(X=k) = P(Y=k) = p(1-p)^k$ for $k \in \mathbb{N}_0$, where $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables. This is my attempt:
$$P(X + Y = k) = P(\bigsqcup_{i=0}^k\{X = i, Y = k-i\}) = \sum_{i=0}^kP(X=i,Y=k-i)$$ $$=\sum_{i=0}^kp(1-p)^ip(1-p)^{k-i} = p^2\sum_{i=0}^k(1-p)^k = p^2(k+1)(1-p)^k$$
Is this computation correct? Can it be further be simplified/is this probability function known?
It looks ok. As a sanity check, we could see that the pmf sums up to $1$. Instead of computing the sum explicity, let's recall that $X$ is a geometric random variable with mean $E[X]=(1-p)/p$. Now
$$ \sum _{k=0}^\infty p^2(k+1)(1−p)^k = p \sum _{k=0}^\infty k \, p(1−p)^k + p \sum _{k=0}^\infty p(1−p)^k =p E[X]+ p=1$$
Looks fine.