What is the correct mathematical reasoning to omit the $+ 1$ in $\log(+1) = \Theta(\log())$ since it is a constant?
2026-03-29 21:05:02.1774818302
Correctly prove that $\log(+1) = \Theta(\log())$
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If $f=\Theta(g)$, then by the limit definition
$$0 < \liminf_{x \to \infty} \left|\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\right| \le \limsup_{x \to \infty} \left|\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\right|< \infty.$$
Note that if we choose $f=\log(n+1)$ and $g=\log(n)$, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|\frac{\log(n+1)}{\log(n)}\right| = \liminf_{n \to \infty} \left|\frac{\log(n+1)}{\log(n)}\right| = \limsup_{n \to \infty} \left|\frac{\log(n+1)}{\log(n)}\right|.$$
The $+1$ does not change the growth of the function, so $\log(n+1)/\log(n)=1$ as $n\to\infty.$
In conclusion we have $$0<1\le1<\infty,$$ which is true and so $\log(n+1)=\Theta(\log n)$.