From Bass, Real Analysis for Graduate Students:
Suppose $(X,\mathcal A)$ is a measurable space and $\mathcal C$ is an arbitrary subset of $\mathcal A$. Suppose $m$ and $n$ are two $\sigma$-finite measures on $(X,\mathcal A)$ such that $m(A)=n(A)$ for all $A\in \mathcal C$. Is it true that $m(A)=n(A)$ for all $A\in \sigma(\mathcal C) ?$ What if $m$ and $n$ are finite ?
I'm persuaded both are not true since $\mathcal C$ need not be a $\pi$-system (that is to say closed under intersection).
I've been looking for a counter-example, but the finiteness assumptions make it difficult. For example, on $(\mathbb R, \mathcal B(\mathbb R))$, let $\mu(\emptyset)=0$ and $\mu(A)=\infty$ whenever $A$ is a nonempty Borel set. $\mu$ and the counting measure agree on all open sets, but obviously not on $\mathcal B(\mathbb R)$. Nevertheless $\mu$ is not $\sigma$-finite.
Can someone give some hints ? My intuition is still lacking.
This is my previous comment:
Take $X=\{1,2\}$, $\mathcal{C}=\{\{1\}\}$ and measure $m,n$ on $\sigma(\mathcal{C})$ with $m\{1\}=m\{2\}=n\{1\}=1$ and $n\{2\}=2$. Note that in this case $\mathcal{C}$ is a $\pi$-system.
The problem with $\mathcal{C}$, which allows us to construct counter-examples, is that we do not necessarily have $m(X)=n(X)$.
If we assume that $m(X)=n(X)$ and $m$ and $n$ are finite, then the finite conclusion holds: $m(A)=n(A)$ for all $A\in\sigma(\mathcal{C}))$ (to prove this, simply show that the family $\left\{A:m(A)=n(A)\right\}$ is a $\sigma$-algebra containing $\mathcal{C}$).