I'm stuck on finding a counterexample for the following problem,
If $G$ is a group with operation * and $a$ and $b$ belong in $G$, then $(a*b)^2=a^2*b^2$.
I think it's false because the law of exponents only works if the group is Abelian and they never stated whether this group was Abelian. My line of thought is that I shouldn't use multiplication or addition as my operation since they are commutative but I don't know where to go from there.
An example from the group $(\mathbb H\setminus\{0\},\cdot)$:
$(ij)^2=k^2=-1$
but
$i^2j^2=(-1)^2=1$.