On Wikipedia, I found out that if $f,g$ are any two Riemann integrable functions then $$f(x)< g(x)\, , \ \forall x \in[a,b] \implies \int_a^b f < \int_a^b g$$
I was wondering if the other way around was true? So (luckily) I made a function that had less area under the curve when above the $X$ axis and the same (signed) area when when below the $X$ axis.
Take $$f(x)= \begin{cases} \frac{1}{2}\sin x & , x \in [0,π] \\ \\ \sin x & , x \in (π,2π]\end{cases}$$ and $g(x) = \sin x , \ x\in [0,2π]$ so $$\int_0^{2π} f < \int_0^{2π} g \nRightarrow f(x)<g(x), \forall x \in [0,2π]$$
Now, I want a counterexample to $$\int_a^b f < \int_a^b g \Rightarrow f(x)≤g(x), \forall x \in [a,b]$$
If you don't require anything about your functions other than Riemann integrability, that's trivial. Let $f(x)=1$ on $(0,1]$ AND $f(0)=5$. Then the integral is $1$. Let $g(x)=100000x$. That integrates to an area of $50000$ but $f(0)>g(0)$