I am having a hard time finding a counterexample for the statement: $G \times K \cong H \times K \implies G \cong H$
I think this should be true for abelian, finite groups. But is this true in general? What would be a counterexample?
Any hints appreciated! Thanks
Let $G = \mathbb{Z} $, $H = \{1\}$, $K = \displaystyle\prod_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \mathbb{Z}$.