I'm confused about finding the standard deviation of various weighted objects in a problem. For example, consider an academic setting, with four assessments as follows:
(30pts weight)
Quiz 1 - Avg: 75% Std: +/- 35%
Quiz 2 - Avg: 39.6% Std: +/- 25.4%
Quiz 3 - Avg: 69.4% Std: +/- 22.4%
(20pts weight)
Midterm - Avg: 63.62% +/- 13.09%
(50pts total)
Overall - Avg: 62% +/- 10.89%
Could one then calculate the std's for the course average, by treating the std's like the avg, and just weight them? That's how I got the std above for the overall grade.
Since you are combining scores using formula $Y = \sum_k \omega_k X_k$, using the linearity of expectation, and Bienaymé formula, assuming the performances at each test are not correlated: $$ \mathbb{E}(Y) = \sum_k \omega_k \mathrm{E}(X_k) \qquad \mathbb{V}(Y) = \sum_k \omega_k^2 \mathbb{V}(X_k) $$
I am getting combined average $(61.83 \pm 9.88) \%$.
As MikeSpivey and MichaelLugo justly point out, the assumption of zero correlation poorly reflects actual state of the matter. So assume that $\mathbb{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = \rho_{ij}$. Then $$ \mathbb{V}(Y) = \sum_{i,j} \omega_i \omega_i \mathbb{Cov}(X_i, X_j) = \sum_k \omega_k^2 \mathbb{V}(X_k) + \sum_{i < j} \omega_i \omega_j \rho_{ij} \sqrt{\mathbb{V}(X_i)\mathbb{V}(X_j) } $$ Since the correlation is clearly positive, the total variance is bigger in the correlated case. I did some computations assuming equal correlation between test.