There was actually another question like this but the final answer a person mentioned was incorrect and I was confused as to how he got it. Can any answers explain how they got there? I'd like to understand what's going on so these types of problems are easier for me in the future.
Q: 10 cards are drawn with replacement at random from a 52 card deck. What is the probability that at least 2 queens are drawn?
Here's the link that asked the same question: probability of selecting cards
Thanks for any help in advance.
Probability Space: Drawing 10 cards with replacement from a standard deck.
Favoured Event: Drawing at least 2 queens.
Complementary Event: Drawing less than 2 queens
Let $Q$ be the count of queens drawn.
Assuming the deck is well shuffled after each replacement, then the probability of getting a queen on any draw is independent of every other draw, and equal to $1/13$. This gives $Q$ a binomial distribution.
$$\begin{align} Q \sim \mathcal{Bin}(10, 1/13) \\[2ex] \mathsf P(Q=k) & = {10\choose k}\frac{12^{10-k}}{13^{10}} \\[2ex] \mathsf P(Q \geq 2) & = 1 - \mathsf P(Q<2) \\[1ex] & = 1 - {10\choose 0}\frac{12^{10}}{13^{10}} - {10\choose 1}\frac{12^{9}}{13^{10}} \\[1ex] & = \frac{13^{10}-12^{10}-10\cdot 12^{9}}{13^{10}} \end{align}$$
From your comment.
Indeed it does. If a trial has probability of success $p$ and failure $q=1-p$, then the probability of $k$ successes in $n$ trials is measured by the $p^k$ term of the binomial expansion of:
$$(q+p)^n = q^n + n p q^{n-1} + \frac{n(n-1)}{2}p^2 q^{n-2}p^2 + \cdots + {n\choose k}p^k q^{n-k} + \cdots + p^n$$
That is: $$\begin{align} \mathsf P(X=k) &= {n\choose k}p^k q^{n-k} \\ & = {n\choose k}p^k (1-p)^{n-k} \end{align}$$
This is why we call such a probability distribution a binomial distribution.
Alternatively: the probability of $k$ successes and $n-k$ failures in a certain order is $p^k q^{n-k}$, and there are ${n\choose k}$ ways to order such events. So the probability of $k$ successes and $n-k$ failures in any order is:${n\choose k}q^{n-k}p^k$