This problem occurred when I was trying to solve Exercise 3.2.30 of Karatzas & Shreve's book, the exercise stated:
For $M\in\mathcal{M}^{c,loc},X\in\mathcal{P}^*$, and $Z$ an $\mathcal{F}_s$-measurable random variable, show that $\int_{s}^{t}ZX_u\;dM_u=Z\int_{s}^{t}X_u\;dM_u$.
I "solved" this exercise by calculating the quadratic variation on both sides, which are both $\int_{s}^{t}Z^2X_u^2\;d\langle M\rangle _u$, notationally.
Then I realized that the integral $\int_{s}^{t}ZX_u\;dM_u$ may not have a proper definition. I would interpret $\int_{s}^{t}ZX_u\;dM_u$ as the difference of two integrals, namely $\int_{0}^{t}ZX_u\;dM_u-\int_{0}^{s}ZX_u\;dM_u$. This interpretation worked well in many cases. But with $Z$ being an $\mathcal{F}_s$-measurable random variable (not $\mathcal{F}_0$-measurable), the process $\{ZX_t\}_{t\ge 0}$ does not satisfy the measurability conditions in the definition of stochastic integrals and therefore $\int_{0}^{t}ZX_u\;dM_u$ is not well-defined.
How to properly define the term $\int_{s}^{t}ZX_u\;dM_u$ then?
You can define
$$ \int_{s}^{t} X_u \, \mathrm{d}M_u = \int_{0}^{t} X_u \mathbf{1}_{[s,\infty)}(u) \, \mathrm{d}M_u. $$
Now if $Z$ is $\mathcal{F}_s$-measurable, then $ u \mapsto ZX_u\mathbf{1}_{[s,\infty)}(u) $ is also adapted to the filtration $(\mathcal{F}_u)_{u\geq 0}$, hence the integral can be defined.