The definition of the directional derivative in my textbook is
$$ \nabla_{\vec{v}} f = \lim\limits_{h\to 0}\frac{f(\vec{x} + h \vec{v} )-f(\vec{x})}{h} $$
with $\vec{x} = (x_1, x_2)$ and $\vec{v} = (v_1, v_2)$ (I first want to consider the two variable case).
However, before looking at this definition I tried to come up with it on my own: Say I'm given a function $f(x_1, x_2)$ and wanted to evaluate the directional derivative for a vector $\vec{v}$ for $x_1 = 0$ and $x_2 = 0$. Similar to the one-variable case I would consider the slope of the secant $\Delta f$ $$ \Delta f = \frac{f(x_1 + v_1, x_2 + v_2) -f(x_1, x_2)}{\Vert \vec{v}\Vert} $$ so when introducing some real number $h > 0$ which will allow us to make the change in $(x_1, x_2)$ arbitrary small we can consider the limit $$ \nabla_{\vec{v}} f = \lim\limits_{h\to 0}\frac{f(\vec{x} + h \vec{v} )-f(\vec{x})}{h\Vert\vec{v}\Vert} $$ whereby $\Vert\cdot\Vert$ denotes the standard $\mathbb{R}^2$ norm.
Is the latter definition also correct? I doubt it, because if
$$ \nabla_{\vec{v}} f = \lim\limits_{h\to 0}\frac{f(\vec{x} + h \vec{v} )-f(\vec{x})}{h} = L \neq 0 $$ then
$$ \nabla_{\vec{v}} f = \lim\limits_{h\to 0}\frac{f(\vec{x} + h \vec{v} )-f(\vec{x})}{h\Vert\vec{v}\Vert} = \frac{1}{\Vert \vec{v}\Vert} \lim\limits_{h\to 0}\frac{f(\vec{x} + h \vec{v} )-f(\vec{x})}{h} = \frac{1}{\Vert \vec{v}\Vert} L \neq L. $$
I hope someone can clarify this for me.
Edit: I know that the first definition is more general because it doesn't require the existence of a norm but I still don't see why it is correct. Also, in my attempt I don't assume that $\Vert\vec{v}\Vert = 1$ because I just think of it as the length of the vector. Why is this incorrect?
Your definition of the directional derivative is indeed correct, or at least it is one way how one could define it. In fact, your definition is equivalent to the one in terms of a unit vector, which intuitively can be explained by noticing that we are only interested in the direction of the vector rather than its magnitude, because when considering the limit, the magnitude of the vector won't matter. Moreover, using your definition (provided a norm exists) one obtains the same results as using the definition in terms of the unit vector.
Let $\overline{v} = \begin{bmatrix} a\\b \end{bmatrix} $ denote the unit vector and $\vec{v} = \begin{bmatrix} v_1\\v_2 \end{bmatrix} = \overline{v} \cdot \lambda, \ 1 < \lambda \in \mathbb{R}$ some unnormed vector.
First, consider only $$ \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + h a, y + hb)}{h} $$ whereby it can be shown that (if you want me to clarify this please say so)$$ \nabla_{\overline{v}}f(x, y) = f_x(x, y) \cdot a + f_y(x, y) \cdot b $$
so $$\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + h v_1, y + hv_2)}{h\cdot \|\vec{v}\|} = \frac{1}{\|\vec{v}\|}\cdot \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + h v_1, y + hv_2)}{h} = \frac{1}{\|\vec{v}\|} \cdot \left( f_x(x, y) \cdot v_1 + f_y(x, y) \cdot v_2 \right) $$
$$ =\frac{1}{\|\vec{v}\|} \cdot \left( f_x(x, y) \cdot a\cdot \lambda + f_y(x, y) \cdot b\cdot \lambda \right) = \frac{\lambda}{\|\vec{v}\|} \left( f_x(x, y) \cdot a\cdot + f_y(x, y) \cdot b\cdot \right) $$
$$ = f_x(x, y) \cdot a\cdot + f_y(x, y) \cdot b. $$
Now, when there doesn't exist a norm, things are getting more abstract and we no longer have this intuitive interpretation of the directional derivative and hence no longer "care" about the potential factors. Notice however, that when using the first definition you mentioned, there is no unique directional derivative considering one direction, which is an important distinction.