Doing my Calculus homework came across a "problem" regarding the applicability of the solution. Using the delta-epsilon definition I tried to prove these two limits. Here is my work:
$$ \lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{1}{x+2}=0\\ \\\forall\epsilon>0\hspace{2mm} \exists M>0\hspace{1mm}\text{such that} \hspace{1mm} x>M \implies|f(x) - L|<\epsilon$$ $$ |\frac{1}{x+2}-0|<\epsilon\\|\frac{1}{x+2}|<\epsilon\\\frac{1}{x+2}<\epsilon\\x+2>\frac{1}{\epsilon}\\x>\frac{1}{\epsilon}-2=M $$ And the second one is: $$ \lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{1}{x^3+2}=0\\|\frac{1}{x^3+2}-0|<\epsilon\\|\frac{1}{x^3+2}|<\epsilon\\\frac{1}{x^3+2}<\epsilon\\x^3+2>\frac{1}{\epsilon}\\x>\sqrt[3]{\frac{1}{e}-2}=M $$
Now, both the solutions seem right, but what does not make sense to me is the thing that according to the definition for all $\epsilon>0$ there has to be $M>0$ and in both cases, there are values for $\epsilon$ when $M$ will be negative. This happens always when there is addition in the denominator. Is there a "special" way of solving this type of task?
There is nothing to “solve” here. You are supposed to prove that, for each $\varepsilon>0$, there is some $M>0$ such that$$x>M\implies\bigl|f(x)-L\bigr|<\varepsilon.\tag1$$If it turns out that, in some cases, you get a $M\leqslant0$ for which $(1)$ holds, then $(1)$ will still be true if, say $M=1$.