This is confusing me very much... Is there (rigorous) proof that slope of secant line "goes to" slope of tangent line on some point when $\Delta x \rightarrow 0$? This is actually not obvious at all.
Intuitive problem: What guarantees me that function will not be all messy at infinite small input changes? How one can prove that function output sensitivity can't be "good" enough to produce such curve ("output machine") that there is no such small $\Delta x$ for which $\text{slope(secant)} = \text{slope(tangent)}$? I thought about structure of $\mathbb{R}$ and series but I am stuck. Thanks

Have you seen the following example? $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 \sin\frac1x, & x \neq 0 \\ 0, & x = 0 \\ \end{cases} $$
It has $f'(0) = 0$ but it's not obvious what one should mean with a tangent at $x=0$ since the graph oscillates fast close to origin.