Let $u, v$ be two non-negative functions satisfying $u'>v'>0$. Then I would like to show $$\left(\frac{u}{v}\right)'>0.$$ I'm not sure if this is actually even true, although it is intuitive and has worked for every example that I've tried. Here is my work so far:
\begin{align} \left(\frac{u}{v}\right)'=\frac{u'v-uv'}{v^2}, \end{align} so it remains to show that $u'v-uv'>0$.
We can naively substitute the inequality $u'v-uv'>v'(v-u)$, but I believe $v-u>0$ is not required.
If someone can fill in what I'm missing then I would appreciate it.
You can try $u(x) = e^{2x}+1$ , $v(x)=e^x$ ; for negative $x$ ($x=-1$ for example), denominator is close to 0, when denominator increases by $0.001$, it is very big, and numerator is close to $1$, when numerator increases by $0.002$ or $0.003$, it is very small (proportionnaly), even if it is more than $0.001$.