How could I derive by modus ponens the formula $$[A\rightarrow(B\rightarrow C)]\rightarrow[(A\rightarrow B)\rightarrow(A\rightarrow C)]$$ from, and just from, the following axiom schemata?
- $(A\lor A)\rightarrow A$.
- $A\rightarrow(A\lor B)$.
- $(A\lor B)\rightarrow(B\lor A)$.
- $(A\rightarrow B)\rightarrow[(A\lor C)\rightarrow(B\lor C)]$.
- If $A\rightarrow B$ and $B\rightarrow C$, then $A\rightarrow C$.
- $A\rightarrow A$.
- $A\leftrightarrow \neg(\neg A)$.
- $(A\rightarrow B)\leftrightarrow(\neg B\rightarrow \neg A)$.
- $(A\land B)\rightarrow A$ and $(A\land B)\rightarrow B$.
In an axiomatic system you cannot derive it at all (you need to add it as an axiom) , but if you have a natural deduction system you can derive it from nothing at all (ex nihilo)
1) It is easely proved in a natural deduction system:
But still in an axiomatic proof it is not provable.
A bit metalogic:
If an axiomsystem is consistent (truth preserving) then you cannot proof in any way an untrue sentence.
If there is an interpretation of a system (any interpretation at all) where in all models (valuations) all axioms are always true, then all theorems are also always true.
if in an interpretation where in all models(valuations) the axioms are true but there is a model (valuation) where a formula is false then that formula is not a theorem.
Now $ (P \to (Q \to R)) \to ((P \to Q) \to (P \to R)) $ fails in Lukasiewisc 3 valued logic while all other axioms are theorems of Lukasiewisc 3 valued logic.
So the axioms are true in all valuations , but $ (P \to (Q \to R)) \to ((P \to Q) \to (P \to R)) $ is not true in some particular valuation , therefore $ (P \to (Q \to R)) \to ((P \to Q) \to (P \to R)) $ cannot be a theorem of the system.
The proof
Lukasiewicz 3 valued logic consists of the following truthtables:
A formula is a tautology or theorem in this logic if and only iff in every possible valuation the formula evaluates to 1 (the true or designated value)
All given axioms do this. (check this yourself)
But $ (P \to (Q \to R)) \to ((P \to Q) \to (P \to R)) $ where $ P = Q = 2$ and $ R = 3 $ fails, it evaluates to 2
therefore $ (P \to (Q \to R)) \to ((P \to Q) \to (P \to R)) $ is not a theorem of this logic , and therefore it can also not be a theorem of the syatem cannot be a theorem of the system.
QED
missing steps in this proof that you will think about yourself
are the axioms always true. just a lot of work , instead of a 8 line truthtable you get a 27 line truthtable
is the system truthpreserving? this proof is based on a system that uses modus ponens ($ \vdash A, \vdash A \to B $ then $ \vdash B $ ) as inference rule, the system doesn't have this rule it has the hypothetical syllogism inference rule ($ \vdash A \to B , \vdash B \to C $ then $ \vdash A \to C $ ) to me it looks that the hypothectical syllogism inference rule is equivalent or a bit weaker than the modus ponens inference rule, but this is in need of a proof is $ A \to (( A \to B ) \to B) $ provable a theorem in the system
what is the differece between an interpretation and a model? (an interpretation is a logic or logical system itself, a model is a particular valuation)
but these are things the op may think about
two posters that disagree with me, while i can proof they are wrong.